Cisco 200-301 Free Practice Questions — Page 1

Cisco CCNA • 5 questions • Answers & explanations included

Question 1

001.png Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

A. default route
B. network route
C. host route
D. floating static route
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: B. network route

The exhibit shows R1's routing table with the entry: O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/6576] via 10.10.10.1. Host 10.10.13.10 falls within the 10.10.13.0/25 subnet range (10.10.13.0 to 10.10.13.127). This /25 entry is a network route because it points to a subnet rather than a specific host (/32) or the default gateway (0.0.0.0/0). A host route would be a /32 entry specific to one IP address. A default route is represented by 0.0.0.0/0, which exists in the table but is not the most specific match for 10.10.13.10. A floating static route is a static route with a higher administrative distance used as a backup, which is not the case here. Since longest-prefix matching selects the most specific route, 10.10.13.0/25 is chosen over 0.0.0.0/0. Therefore, R1 uses a network route to reach host 10.10.13.10.

Question 2

002.png Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router1 use for traffic to Host A?

A. 10.10.10.0/28
B. 10.10.13.0/25
C. 10.10.13.144/28
D. 10.10.13.208/29
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: D. 10.10.13.208/29

Host A has IP address 10.10.13.214, and Router1's routing table must be evaluated using longest-prefix matching. The table contains OSPF-learned routes: 10.10.13.0/25, 10.10.13.128/28, 10.10.13.144/28, 10.10.13.160/29, and 10.10.13.208/29. The /29 subnet 10.10.13.208/29 covers addresses 10.10.13.208 through 10.10.13.215 (8 hosts with mask 255.255.255.248). Address 10.10.13.214 falls within this range (208 + 6 = 214). No other listed subnet encompasses 10.10.13.214, making 10.10.13.208/29 the most specific (longest-prefix) match. Options A (/28 = .0–.15), B (/25 = .0–.127), and C (/28 = .144–.159) do not include .214. Therefore, Router1 uses prefix 10.10.13.208/29 to forward traffic to Host A.

Question 3

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)

A. input errors
B. frame
C. giants
D. CRC
E. runts
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answers: A. input errors; D. CRC

When a frame fails the Frame Check Sequence (FCS), the receiving interface recognizes it as a CRC error. The CRC counter increments specifically for frames with cyclic redundancy check failures, which is what FCS verifies. The input errors counter is a summary counter that increments for any input-side error, including CRC errors, runts, giants, and others. The frame counter (option B) increments for frames with illegal formats, not FCS failures. Runts (option E) are frames shorter than 64 bytes, unrelated to FCS. Giants (option C) are frames exceeding the maximum size, also unrelated to FCS failures. Since a CRC/FCS failure increments both the specific CRC counter and the parent input errors counter, both A and D are correct. This distinction is important for troubleshooting interface errors on Cisco devices.

Question 4

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.
C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol.
D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.

TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses a three-way handshake (SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK) to establish a reliable connection before data transfer. UDP is a connectionless protocol that sends datagrams without establishing a session and does not guarantee delivery, ordering, or error checking. Option A correctly describes both protocols: TCP's three-way handshake and UDP's lack of delivery guarantee. Option B is incorrect because UDP does not use acknowledgment packets; those are specific to TCP. Option C has the descriptions reversed — TCP provides reliable transfer and UDP is connectionless, not the other way around. Option D is incorrect because FIN bits are used by TCP for connection termination, not establishment, and UDP does not use SYN/ACK bits at all. The key differentiator on the exam is that TCP provides reliability via the three-way handshake and acknowledgments, while UDP trades reliability for speed.

Question 5

Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?

A. management
B. protected frame
C. action
D. control
Show Answer & Explanation

Correct Answer: A. management

IEEE 802.11 defines three categories of frames: management, control, and data. Management frames are used for network operations such as joining, leaving, and maintaining the wireless network. Association Request and Association Response frames are management frames exchanged during the process of a client joining a BSS (Basic Service Set). The Association Response is sent by the access point to confirm or deny a client's association request. Protected Frame (option B) refers to a subfield in the Frame Control field indicating encryption, not a frame type. Action frames (option C) are a subtype of management frames used for specific management actions but Association Response is not classified under this subtype. Control frames (option D) include RTS, CTS, and ACK frames that assist in the delivery of data and management frames. Therefore, Association Response is a management frame type.

Ready for the Full 200-301 Experience?

Access all 235 pages of practice questions and simulate the real exam with timed mode.

Start Interactive Quiz →