PMI PMI-RMP Free Practice Questions — Page 3

Risk Management Professional • 5 questions • Answers & explanations included

Question 11

A risk is identified and documented by the risk manager, but it is unclear how this risk can be proactively managed. In this situation, what type of reserve should be allocated for the risk?

A. Contingency
B. Management
C. Budget
D. Residual
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Correct Answer: B. Management

Management reserve is allocated for unknown unknowns — risks that cannot be proactively managed because their nature is unclear. Since the risk manager cannot determine how to manage this risk proactively, it falls outside the scope of contingency reserve. Contingency reserve (A) is for known risks with defined responses. Budget (C) is not a reserve type. Residual (D) refers to remaining risk after responses are applied, not a reserve category.

Question 12

Which of the following is an effective channel for risk mitigation assistance, project risk visibility and risk escalation support?

A. Project steering committee
B. Project management office (PMO)
C. Change control board (CCB)
D. Board of directors
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Correct Answer: A. Project steering committee

The project steering committee provides executive-level oversight, can authorize resources for mitigation, increase visibility of risks across the organization, and support escalation of risks beyond the project manager's authority. A PMO (B) supports process and governance but is not primarily an escalation body. The CCB (C) handles change requests, not risk escalation. The board of directors (D) is too high a level for routine risk escalation.

Question 13

The risk manager wants to determine what is to be measured, how it is to be measured, and what project outcomes are to be measured. In which of the following processes should this be established?

A. Initiating Process
B. Executing Process
C. Planning Process
D. Monitoring and Controlling Process
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Correct Answer: C. Planning Process

Defining what to measure, how to measure it, and what outcomes to track is part of the Planning Process — specifically within the Plan Risk Management process. These decisions form the foundation of the risk management plan. Initiating (A) sets high-level scope and authorization. Executing (B) implements plans. Monitoring and Controlling (D) tracks performance against established measures — it doesn't define them.

Question 14

Which of the following are examples of relevant data gathering tools?

A. Risk response plan and interviews
B. Questionnaires and historical data
C. Work breakdown structure and historical data
D. Work breakdown structure and interviews
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Correct Answer: B. Questionnaires and historical data

Questionnaires and historical data are standard data-gathering tools used in risk identification and analysis. They help collect stakeholder input and leverage past project experience. Options C and D include the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS), which is a scope decomposition tool, not a data-gathering technique. Option A includes a risk response plan, which is an output, not a data-gathering tool.

Question 15

The risk manager is conducting stakeholder analysis. Which technique should be used to help identify and manage expectations?

A. SWOT analysis
B. Influence diagram
C. Power/Interest Grid
D. Interactive method
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Correct Answer: C. Power/Interest Grid

The Power/Interest Grid classifies stakeholders by their level of authority (power) and concern (interest), helping the risk manager identify who to engage, monitor, or manage closely. This directly supports managing stakeholder expectations. SWOT (A) analyzes strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats — not stakeholders. Influence diagrams (B) model causal relationships among risk variables. "Interactive method" (D) is not a standard PMI stakeholder analysis technique.

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